(11) Amputation of the penis. (12) Varicocele, if large and painful, or hydrocele.

(13) Atrophy of both testicles or loss of both.

(14) Undescended testicle (acceptable if unilateral, abdominal and unassociated with hernia), infantile genital organs.

(15) Chronic orchitis or epididymitis. (16) A persistently positive serologic test for syphilis.

(17) Syphilis in any stage, or a clearly defined history thereof.

(18) Any active venereal infection, acute or chronic, or any active infectious process resulting therefrom.

(19) Reiter's disease.

§ 33.10-25

Extremities.

The following conditions in the applicant are causes for rejection:

(a) All anomalies in the number, the form, the proportion, and the movements of the extremities which produce noticeable deformity or interfere with function.

(b) Atrophy of the muscles of any part, if progressive or if sufficient to interfere with function.

(c) Benign tumors if sufficiently large to interfere with function.

(d) Ununited fracture, fractures with shortening or callus formation sufficient to interfere with function, old dislocations unreduced or partially reduced, complete or partial ankylosis of a joint, or relaxed articular ligaments permitting of frequent voluntary or involuntary displacement.

(e) Reduced dislocation or united fractures with incomplete restoration of function; substantiated history of recurrent dislocations of major joints.

(f) Amputation of any portion of a limb (except fingers or toes if there is no interference with military activities), or resection of a joint.

(g) Excessive curvature of a long bone or extensive, deep, or adherent scars interfering with motion.

(h) Severe sprains.

(1) Disease of the bones or joints; active osteomyelitis; history of an attack of hematogenous osteomyelitis; recurrent attacks of osteomyelitis; sequestrum demonstrable on X-ray; or a substantiated history of a single attack of osteomyelitis, except when treated successfully three or more years previously without subsequent recurrent or disqualifying sequelae.

(j) Chronic synovitis; torn cartilage; osteochondritis dessicans; or other internal derangement in a joint (particularly of knee joint with history of disability).

(k) Varicose veins in an extremity when they cover a large area; are markedly tortuous or much dilated, or are associated with edema or are accompanied by subjective symptoms.

(1) Varices of any kind situated in the leg below the knee, if associated with varicose ulcers or scars from old ulcerations; chronic edema of a limb.

(m) Chronic or obstinate neuralgias, particularly sciatic neuritis.

(n) Adherent or united fingers (web fingers).

(0) Deviation of the normal axis of the forearm to such a degree as to interfere with the proper execution of the manual of arms.

(p) Permanent flexion or extension of one or more fingers, as well as irremediable loss of motion of these parts, if sufficient to interfere with proper execution of duties.

(q) Entire loss of any finger.

(r) Mutilation of either thumb to such an extent as to produce material loss of apposition or strength of the member.

(s) Loss of more than one phalanx of the right index finger.

(t) Loss of the terminal and middle phalanges of any two fingers on the same hand.

(u) Perceptible lameness or limping. (v) Knock-knee, when the gait is clumsy or ungainly, or when subjective symptoms of weakness are present; bowlegs if so marked as to produce noticeable deformity when the applicant is dressed.

(w) Clubfoot unless the defect is so slight as to produce no symptoms.

(x) Pes cavus if extreme and causing symptoms.

(y) Flatfoot when accompanied with symptoms of weak foot or when the foot is weak on test. Pronounced cases of flatfoot attended with decided eversion of the foot and marked bulging of the inner border, due to inward rotation of the astragalus, are disqualifying, regardless of the presence or absence of subjective symptoms.

(z) Loss of either great toe or loss of any two toes on the same foot.

(aa) Overriding or superposition of any of the toes to such a degree as will produce pain.

(bb) Ingrowing toenails when marked or painful.

(cc) Hallux valgus, particularly congenital type or when accompanied by bunion.

(dd) Bunions sufficiently pronounced to interfere with function.

(ee) Hammertoes when existing to such a degree as to interfere with function when wearing shoes.

(ff) Corns or calluses on the sole of the foot when they are tender or painful. (gg) Hyperidrosis or bromidrosis when present to a marked degree.

(hh) Habitually sodden feet with blistered skin.

(ii) Unusually large or deformed feet for which proper shoes cannot be readily obtained.

(jj) Severe fungoid infection of nailbeds.

§ 33.10-27 Spine and other musculoskeletal.

The following conditions in the applicant are causes for rejection:

(a) Lateral deviation of the spine from the normal midline of such degree that it impairs normal function or is likely to do so.

(b) Curvature of the spine of such degree that function is interfered with or is likely to be interfered with, or in which there is noticeable deformity when the applicant is dressed (scoliosis, kyphosis, or lordosis).

(c) Fracture or dislocation of the vertebrae.

(d) Vertebral caries (Pott's disease). (e) Abscess of the spinal column or its vicinity; acute or chronic osteomyelitis.

(f) Osteo-arthritis of the spinal column, partial or complete.

(g) Coccydynia; spina bifida; spondylolisthesis; cervical rib.

(h) Active arthritic processes from any cause.

(i) Herniation of intervertebral disc (nucleus pulposus) or history of operation for this condition.

(j) Malformation and deformities of the pelvis sufficient to interfere with function.

(k) Disease of the sacroiliac and lumbo-sacral joints which is chronic in nature, associated with pain referred to legs, muscular spasm, postural deformities, and/or limitation of motion in the region of the lumbar spine.

(1) History of chronic or recurrent low back pain.

(f) Scabies; pediculosis (if indicative of unhygienic habits).

(g) Ulcerations of the skin not amenable to treatment, or those of long standing or of considerable extent, or of syphilitic or malignant origin.

(h) Extensive, deep, or adherent scars that interfere with muscular movements, or that show a tendency to break down and ulcerate.

(i) Naevi and other erectile tumors if extensive, disfiguring or exposed to constant pressure.

(j) Obscene, offensive, or indecent tattooing.

(k) Pilonidal cyst or sinus if evidenced by presence of readily palpable tumor mass or if there is a history of inflammation or of purulent discharge.

(1) Lupus vulgaris; other tuberculous skin lesions.

(m) Lupus erythematosus, discoid or generalized; scleroderma.

(n) Epidermolysis bullosa; pemphigus.

(0) Plantar warts on weight-bearing areas, if of significance.

(p) Cysts and benign tumors of such a size and/or location as to interfere with the normal wearing of military equipment.

(q) Any other chronic skin disease of a degree which renders the individual unfit for military duty or so disfiguring as to render it difficult for the individual to adjust to the ordinary social relationships.

(b) Degenerative disorders (multiple sclerosis, encephalomyelitis, cerebellar and Friedreich's ataxia, athetoses, Huntington's chorea, muscular atrophies and dystrophies of any type, cerebral arteriosclerosis).

(c) Residuals of infection (moderate and severe residuals of poliomyelitis, meningitis and abscesses, paralysis agitans, postencephalitis syndromes, Sydenham's chorea).

(d) Peripheral nerve disorder (chronic or recurrent neuritis or neuralgia of an intensity which is periodically incapacitating, multiple neuritis, neurofibromatosis).

(e) Residuals of trauma (residuals of concussion or severe cerebral trauma, post-traumatic cerebral syndrome, incapacitating severe injuries to peripheral nerves).

(f) Paroxysmal convulsive disorders and disturbances of consciousness (grand mal, petit mal, and psychomotor attacks, syncope, narcolepsy, migraine).

(g) Miscellaneous disorders (tics, spasmodic torticollis, spasms, brain and spinal cord tumors, whether operated upon or not, cerebro-vascular disease, congenital malformations, including spina bifida if associated with neurological manifestations and meningocele even if uncomplicated, Meniere's disease. § 33.10-33 Psychiatric and personality deviations.

The following conditions in the applicant are causes for rejection:

(a) Psychotic disorders or a substantiated history of psychotic episode.

(b) Psychoneurotic reactions which have been incapacitating.

(c) Character and behavior disorders which have prevented a good adjustment with particular reference to antisocial tendencies, sexual deviation, chronic alcoholism or drug addiction.

(d) Immaturity reactions.
(e) Disorders of intelligence.

dition, if their absence causes unsightly spaces or interferes with mastication or incising efficiency.

(b) Carious vital teeth which can be restored satisfactorily by proper filling are not cause for rejection. A tooth is not to be considered serviceable when the caries is extensive.

(c) In addition to the 8 natural teeth in each arch, the bridge teeth required by paragraph (a) of this section may be considered serviceable teeth if the abutment teeth appear to be in good condition and supported by healthy tissue, and that the replaced teeth enter into serviceable occlusion with opposing teeth, providing for proper masticatory function and good appearance. Such bridge or prosthetic appliances as well as missing teeth shall be indicated in the record of physical examination.

(d) Masticating teeth should be considered as molars (including wisdom teeth) and bicuspids. Incisor teeth should include incisors and canine teeth. [CGFR 55-54, 21 F.R. 1198, Feb. 22, 1956, as amended by CGFR 62-42, 28 F.R. 2447, Mar. 13, 1963]

§ 33.10-37 Miscellaneous conditions.

The following miscellaneous conditions in the applicant are causes for rejection:

(a) Any deformity which is repulsive or which prevents the proper functioning of any part to a degree interfering with military efficiency.

(b) Stuttering or other impediment of speech.

(c) Deficient muscular development or deficient nutrition.

(d) Evidences of physical characteristics of congenital asthenia, such as slender bones, a weak ill-developed thorax, nephroptosis, gastroptosis, constipation, and "drop" heart, with its peculiar attenuation and weak and easily fatigued musculature.

(e) All acute communicable diseases.

(f) All diseases and conditions which are not easily remediable or that tend physically to incapacitate the individual, such as: chronic malaria or malarial cachexia; tuberculosis; leprosy, actinomycosis; rheumatoid arthritis; osteomyelitis; malignant disease of any kind in any location or substantiated history of same unless successfully treated five or more years previously; hemophilia; purpura, leukemia of all types; perni

cious anemia; sickle cell anemia; trypanosomiasis; filariasis which has produced permanent disability or deformity, history of any acute attack of filariasis within 6 months of date of examination, or the finding of micro-filaria in the blood stream; chronic metallic poisoning, allergic manifestations such as hay fever, if more than mild or if likely to cause more than minimal loss of time from duty or if associated with nasal polyps or hyperplastic sinusitis; allergic conjunctivitis, allergic dermatoses, or allergic rhinitis particularly if there is associated hyperplastic sinusitis or nasal polyps, or a history thereof, when in the opinion of the examiner the condition is likely to recur frequently, or to cause more than minimal loss of time from duty or otherwise is of present or future clinical significance.

Conditions not enumerated or combinations of conditions which, in the opinion of the medical examiner, will not permit a full productive military career, should be recorded in detail with appropriate recommendations. If all defects present are recorded on Standard Form 88 and the medical examiner considers all defects in final determination as to qualification of candidate, the Commandant's acceptance or rejection of candidates will be simplified.

(a) Whenever practicable, roentgenographic examination of the chest shall be made as a part of the physical examination to determine physical fitness for original entry into the service. If it is impracticable to obtain the roentgenographic examination or have the examination read or to send the examination with the Standard Form 88, a statement to this effect shall be made on the Standard Form 88 with an explanation of why it was impracticable, with a request that roentgenographic examination be obtained if and when the applicant reports for active duty.

(b) All Coast Guard activities and Public Health Service facilities with the necessary X-ray equipment shall be considered as available for these examinations and whenever practicable, the examinations shall be made by the photofluorographic technique for convenience

and economy. Photofluorographic units are located at the following activities: (1) Coast Guard:

(i) Academy.

(ii) Groton Training Station.

(iii) Cape May Receiving Center. (iv) Alameda Base.

(v) Yard.

(2) Public Health Service hospitals:
(i) Brighton, Mass.

(ii) Stapleton, Staten Island, N.Y.
(iii) Baltimore, Md.
(iv) Norfolk, Va.
(v) Savannah, Ga.
(vi) New Orleans, La.
(vii) Galveston, Tex.
(viii) Detroit, Mich.
(ix) Chicago, Ill.

(x) San Francisco, Calif.
(xi) Seattle, Wash.

(3) Public Health Service outpatient clinics:

(i) 67 Hudson Street, New York, N.Y. (ii) 800 St. Anthony Street, Mobile 16, Ala.

(iii) Old Post Office Building, Cleveland 15, Ohio.

(iv) 225 Chestnut Street, Philadelphia, Pa.

(v) 308 Federal Building, San Pedro, Calif.

(vi) 408 Federal Building, Los Angeles 12, Calif.

(vii) Fourth and D Streets SW., Washington 25, D.C.

36-081-70-10

Applications for cadetship will be accepted from all men who meet the requirements outlined in the regulations in this part.

(Sec. 632, 63 Stat. 545; 14 U.S.C. 632) [CGFR 69-85, 34 F.R. 14211, Sept. 10, 1969] § 40.3

General requirements for eligibility.

(a) A candidate must be a citizen of the United States and must have reached his seventeenth but not his twentysecond birthday on July 1 of the calendar year in which he is appointed a cadet. If the candidate has not reached his seventeenth birthday, or if he has reached his twenty-second birthday, on July 1 of the calendar year in which he seeks to be appointed a cadet, he will be ineligible for appointment. If under 21 years of age, he will be required to furnish the written consent of parent or guardian before admission to the Coast Guard Academy.

(b) He must satisfy the Commandant of the Coast Guard as to his good moral character and standing in the community.

(c) He must satisfy the Commandant of the Coast Guard that he has sufficient credits in prescribed subjects to justify his being designated for examination.

(d) He must be unmarried and have never been married. Any cadet who shall marry, or who shall be found to be married, or to have been married before his final graduation, shall be required to resign. Refusal to resign will result in dismissal.

(e) He must be physically sound and not less than 5'4'' nor more than 6'10'' in height, stripped.

(f) No person who has been dismissed or compelled to resign from the United States Military Academy, the United

States Naval Academy, the United States Air Force Academy, the United States Merchant Marine Academy, or the United States Coast Guard Academy for improper conduct is eligible for appointment as a cadet in the Coast Guard. No person whose discharge from any branch of the military service was under conditions other than honorable is eligible for appointment as a cadet.

(Sec. 632, 63 Stat. 545; 14 U.S.C. 632) [CGFR 61-37, 27 F.R. 293, Jan. 11, 1962, as amended by CGFR 62–26, 27 F.R. 8492, Aug. 24, 1962; CGFR 69-85, 34 F.R. 14211, Sept. 10, 1969] § 40.4 Specific requirements for eligibility.

(a) No waivers of educational or physical requirements are granted except that the Superintendent may waive the visual acuity requirements for up to 3 percent of the applicants offered appointments provided that all applicants accepted must have visual acuity in each eye of at least 20/100 correctible to 20/20.

(b) A candidate must be a graduate of an accredited high school or preparatory school or be in actual attendance in his senior year at an accredited preparatory school or high school, and have already completed three (3) years' work at such a school. A candidate indicating prospective graduation from a preparatory school or high school must, as a condition of admission, satisfactorily complete his course not later than June 30. With the exception of courses completed through the United States Armed Forces Institute, for which credit has been granted by an accredited school, correspondence schools do not meet the requirements for "Accredited Schools." Certificates issued by correspondence schools will not be accepted. A total of 15 units obtained in high school, preparatory school, or college must be submitted.